"Congress has the power to regulate commerce. It says so in the Constitution. So it's legit. Stop complaining; it'll work." Why is it that people who say this leave out the whole statement about regulating commerce? Congress has the power to regulate commerce among the states, foreign nations, and Indian tribes. So, to all the people who believe that congress can force you to buy something under the commerce clause, would you tell France to buy health insurance from American companies, or American vehicles? Would you threaten to sue them under the commerce clause if they didn't? Of course not because it's not what "regulate" under the commerce clause means.
Yes, "regulate" means "control." But here's the thing people, words have many definitions, and you must see how that word is used in a sentence to know what definition is being used. "Regulate" also means "to make uniform." "Similar" is probably a better definition.
Why did the founding fathers want to make commerce "similar" with the states? Well, during the days of the Articles of Confederation, the federal government did not have the power to create tariffs; that was up to the individual states. And the states were setting different tariffs for different states. But the founders were all about free trade, and wanted goods to flow between all of the states. So when they decided to scrap the Articles and make a new constitution, they decided only the federal government can set tariffs among the states. And the tariff was, and is, zero dollars allowing the free flow of goods.
As you can see, the commerce clause has nothing to do with the government forcing people to buy health care, or anything for that matter; it was meant to encourage trade among the states. However, in this day and age, the Constitution is nothing more than a piece of paper liberals and conservatives use to wipe their asses after they shit out their agendas.